Comments on: About http://www.jasonstaples.com/blog Boldly professing the obvious since 2009 Mon, 14 May 2012 17:00:29 +0000 hourly 1 http://wordpress.org/?v=3.3.2 By: Jason A. Staples http://www.jasonstaples.com/blog/about#comment-318 Jason A. Staples Wed, 16 Mar 2011 17:10:37 +0000 http://71.18.65.144/biblioblog/?page_id=2#comment-318 Thanks for the question. I'll put up a post to answer it ASAP. Thanks for the question. I’ll put up a post to answer it ASAP.

]]> By: Harry http://www.jasonstaples.com/blog/about#comment-2 Harry Sat, 12 Mar 2011 17:38:33 +0000 http://71.18.65.144/biblioblog/?page_id=2#comment-2 Jason could you give me your thoughts about Matthew 28 :1 If can not or do not want to that if OK but I seem to be struggling with it and have been searching for an answer. When I looked at this verse in the Greek it is presented like this in the strong's concordance: Ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων ἦλθεν Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ καὶ ἡ ἄλλη Μαριὰ θεωρῆσαι τὸν τάφον My question is, it seems that the word "σαββάτων" is used twice in this verse but the second time it is used it is translated "week" instead of "sabbath" or possibly it means "Sabbaths" in a plural sense I do not know with certainty. In mark 3:4 in reads καὶ λέγει αὐτοῖς Ἕξεστιν τοῖς σάββασιν ἀγαθοποιῆσαι, ἢ κακοποιῆσαι ψυχὴν σῶσαι ἢ ἀποκτεῖναι οἱ δὲ ἐσιώπων (And 2532 he saith 3004 unto them 846, Is it lawful 1832 to do good 15 on the sabbath days 4521, or 2228 to do evil 2554 ? to save 4982 life 5590, or 2228 to kill 615 ? But 1161 they held their peace 4623 . the number references are from the concordance but notice how it reads "sabbath days" could it not just say Sabbaths? so what then is the singular translation for sabbath? In mark 6:2 it reads καὶ γενομένου σαββάτου ἤρξατο ἐν τῇ συναγωγῇ διδάσκειν καὶ πολλοὶ ἀκούοντες ἐξεπλήσσοντο λέγοντες Πόθεν τούτῳ ταῦτα καὶ τίς ἡ σοφία ἡ δοθεῖσα αὐτῷ, ὅτι καὶ δυνάμεις τοιαῦται διὰ τῶν χειρῶν αὐτοῦ γινόνται and there is the word "σαββάτου" which is different from "σαββάτων" in Matthew and is also different from σάββασιν in mark 3:4 Mark 2:24 And 2532 the Pharisees 5330 said 3004 unto him 846, Behold 2396, why 5101 do they 4160 on 1722 the sabbath day 4521 that which 3739 is 1832 0 not 3756 lawful 1832 ? or in Greek> καὶ οἱ Φαρισαῖοι ἔλεγον αὐτῷ Ἴδε τί ποιοῦσιν ἐν τοῖς σάββασιν ὃ οὐκ ἔξεστιν the word σάββασιν written here is not defined as "sabbath days" as it is defined mark 3:4 as "sabbath days" The word for "days" in the Greek text is "ἡμέρα" I did find this word in Luke 13:14 but it is used in a singular form "day" Question the word σάββασιν,σαββάτων,σαββάτου are all referenced to 4521 sabbath What do these words by themselves mean? I believe that the true word of God is the divinely inspired in the original manuscripts form the Hebrew and the Greek and the translated versions in any language are not in any way divinely inspired. And when the translators didn't understand something they felt they needed to find a way to make it fit and in doing so did a great injustice to the original word so when they seen the sabbath written two times in Matthew 28:1 it did not make sense because in their minds they thought how can the sabbath be on Sunday when the 7th day sabbath was sanctified by God from the beginning, An argument is made that the use of the plural “Sabbaths” as it is found in Matthew 28:1 somehow means “between the Sabbaths,” which then allows a change from “Sabbaths” to “week.” But there are only six days between the Sabbaths. Therefore, “week” and “between the Sabbaths” could not be synonymous. in Luke 18:12 the word in the original is “Sabbath” (singular). Yet the translators dared to translate this also as “week.” If Matthew was to be changed it could read something like this. “In the end of Sabbaths at the dawning on toward the first of the Sabbaths came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre. to expand on it “Now that the era of the Old Testament Sabbaths has come to an end inasmuch as Jesus Who was typified by those Sabbaths had finished His work and was now resting from His labors.” The last seventh day Sabbath like all the previous seventh day Sabbaths pointed directly to the cross where Christ alone did all the work that was necessary to save those who believe on Him. Rest on Jesus he has become our new sabbath we can not do any work toward our salvation because he did all the work for us on the cross so we must rest in him. I don't know if this is correct so I am asking you thanks. Jason could you give me your thoughts about Matthew 28 :1 If can not or do not want to that if OK but I seem to be struggling with it and have been searching for an answer. When I looked at this verse in the Greek it is presented like this in the strong’s concordance: Ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων ἦλθεν Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ καὶ ἡ ἄλλη Μαριὰ θεωρῆσαι τὸν τάφον
My question is, it seems that the word “σαββάτων” is used twice in this verse but the second time it is used it is translated “week” instead of “sabbath” or possibly it means “Sabbaths” in a plural sense I do not know with certainty.
In mark 3:4 in reads καὶ λέγει αὐτοῖς Ἕξεστιν τοῖς σάββασιν ἀγαθοποιῆσαι, ἢ κακοποιῆσαι ψυχὴν σῶσαι ἢ ἀποκτεῖναι οἱ δὲ ἐσιώπων (And 2532 he saith 3004 unto them 846, Is it lawful 1832 to do good 15 on the sabbath days 4521, or 2228 to do evil 2554 ? to save 4982 life 5590, or 2228 to kill 615 ? But 1161 they held their peace 4623 . the number references are from the concordance but notice how it reads “sabbath days” could it not just say Sabbaths? so what then is the singular translation for sabbath? In mark 6:2 it reads καὶ γενομένου σαββάτου ἤρξατο ἐν τῇ συναγωγῇ διδάσκειν καὶ πολλοὶ ἀκούοντες ἐξεπλήσσοντο λέγοντες Πόθεν τούτῳ ταῦτα καὶ τίς ἡ σοφία ἡ δοθεῖσα αὐτῷ, ὅτι καὶ δυνάμεις τοιαῦται διὰ τῶν χειρῶν αὐτοῦ γινόνται and there is the word “σαββάτου” which is different from “σαββάτων” in Matthew and is also different from σάββασιν in mark 3:4
Mark 2:24 And 2532 the Pharisees 5330 said 3004 unto him 846, Behold 2396, why 5101 do they 4160 on 1722 the sabbath day 4521 that which 3739 is 1832 0 not 3756 lawful 1832 ? or in Greek> καὶ οἱ Φαρισαῖοι ἔλεγον αὐτῷ Ἴδε τί ποιοῦσιν ἐν τοῖς σάββασιν ὃ οὐκ ἔξεστιν the word σάββασιν written here is not defined as “sabbath days” as it is defined mark 3:4 as “sabbath days”
The word for “days” in the Greek text is “ἡμέρα”
I did find this word in Luke 13:14 but it is used in a singular form “day”
Question the word σάββασιν,σαββάτων,σαββάτου are all referenced to 4521 sabbath

What do these words by themselves mean?
I believe that the true word of God is the divinely inspired in the original manuscripts form the Hebrew and the Greek and the translated versions in any language are not in any way divinely inspired. And when the translators didn’t understand something they felt they needed to find a way to make it fit and in doing so did a great injustice to the original word so when they seen the sabbath written two times in Matthew 28:1 it did not make sense because in their minds they thought how can the sabbath be on Sunday when the 7th day sabbath was sanctified by God from the beginning, An argument is made that the use of the plural “Sabbaths” as it is found in Matthew 28:1 somehow means “between the Sabbaths,” which then allows a change from “Sabbaths” to “week.” But there are only six days between the Sabbaths. Therefore, “week” and “between the Sabbaths” could not be synonymous. in Luke 18:12 the word in the original is “Sabbath” (singular). Yet the translators dared to translate this also as “week.”
If Matthew was to be changed it could read something like this.
“In the end of Sabbaths at the dawning on toward the first of the Sabbaths came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.
to expand on it
“Now that the era of the Old Testament Sabbaths has come to an end inasmuch as Jesus Who was typified by those Sabbaths had finished His work and was now resting from His labors.” The last seventh day Sabbath like all the previous seventh day Sabbaths pointed directly to the cross where Christ alone did all the work that was necessary to save those who believe on Him. Rest on Jesus he has become our new sabbath we can not do any work toward our salvation because he did all the work for us on the cross so we must rest in him.
I don’t know if this is correct so I am asking you thanks.

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